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dolfan wrote:truly obedient person will do what Jesus said and did. Why? Because of love for God. The one who loves Him is the one who does what He says. That is relationship.
dolfan wrote:We can saw the parable of the prodigal son apart in many different ways. I wonder just how much we should...
In verse 31 he calls him SON again to set his relationship straight.. and reminds him that this GOAT / CALF he desired etc was already his to make merry with his friends if he so choose. He NEVER EVER had to earn it. It was a FREE GIFT. Praise God!!!
We can saw the parable of the prodigal son apart in many different ways. I wonder just how much we should. It stands for a simple proposition:
Ahh my lawyer friend.. we should.. we should...
Would this scripture apply to the context of the 1 timothy 5:9 ?
1 Timothy 5:16
If any man or woman that believeth have widows, let them relieve them, and let not the church be charged; that it may relieve them that are widows indeed.
Or do we extend the meaning to apply to believers that just don't work to support their family?
It's as if the believer has turn from his faith, because he has chosen to not support his widow. Therefore he is counted worst than an infidel. For once knowing what is good and acceptable before the Lord and then turning.
Pastorbps wrote:I cannot see the older brother's role having anything to do with having his own goat. Sorry, I just don't see that.
29. But he answered his father, 'Look! All these years I've been slaving for you and never disobeyed your orders. Yet you never gave me even a young goat so I could celebrate with my friends. 30. But when this son of yours who has squandered your property with prostitutes comes home, you kill the fattened calf for him!'
11. Jesus continued: "There was a man who had two sons. 12The younger one said to his father, 'Father, give me my share of the estate.' So he divided his property between them.
dolfan wrote:Running my own risk of overdissecting, here.......... but, I wonder if the "division" that the father did can be read to signify that he already "distributed". In the law, if you die and leave an estate of any degree to more than one person, someone behind you has to -- in some measure -- come in and allocate the interests. "This here's yours, that there's his, and that over yonder is hers." But, there is a time where creditors and other people who may have higher claims on those interests to assert them before actual distribution can be made free and clear. I just wonder if the elder son here REALLY could have just taken his "share". What would the father have done had he come and asked for his, even if he was going to "run it right"?? Since we're discussing the relational "rights" of the elder son to his father, what effect would that have had on the relationship?? What do you think the father in the parable would've said had the elder son made that request?
Luke 15:31" 'My son,' the father said, 'you are always with me, and everything I have is yours.
dolfan wrote:Yeah, but that depends on what the meaning of "yours" is!
Yours: that which belongs to you
Function: pronoun, singular or plural in construction
Etymology: Middle English, from your + -s -'s
Date: 1526
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